2014年4月21日星期一

Latest training guide for Avaya 3200

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Exam Code: 3200
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
65 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-20

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NO.1 Which backup type is supported for the Avaya Modular Messaging Single Server?
A. Type 2 or 4 DVD RAM cartridge
B. DVD-RW disk
C. FTP/SFTP backup
D. Norton Ghost
Answer: C

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NO.2 A technician wants to determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet
Messaging and Enhanced List Application Software.
On a Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in which location of the Web
Administration pages can this information be found?
A. Reports -> System Evaluation
B. Server Information -> Server Status
C. Utilities -> Messaging DB Audits
D. Logs -> Messaging Start-Up
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging
5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration?
(Choose two.)
A. the PBX translations
B. the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C. the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D. the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS)
NetBIOS name
Answer: B,C

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NO.4 A customer is reporting a delay in receiving messages with their system. They have a 2
Messaging Application Server (MAS) and a Message Storage Server (MSS). The user did not
have any messages when leaving for the day. The next morning the message waiting indicator
was on, and the message was from a client that called the day before.
Which reports should be reviewed to troubleshoot this Issue?
A. Under Programs>Avaya Modular Messaging>Reporting Tools run the System Usage and U
Mailbox statistics reports.
B. Review the Administration History under Logs on the Message Store.
C. Review the Subscriber Activity log under Logs on the Message Store.
D. Review the Server Event log under Logs on the Message Store.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which three statements are true about the Enhanced List Application (ELA) lists that can be
used? (Choose three.)
A. The administrator has to setup up an ELA shadow mailbox before users can send ELA
messages.
B. An ELA mailbox is like any other mailbox, allowing such operations as recording a name and a
greeting for the list, and allowing Call Answer messages to be distributed through ELA.
C. Administrators can restrict ELA lists so that users can't reply to messages they receive from the
list.
D. A Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MSS) system supports a maximum of 250
ELA list and each ELA list can have a maximum of 250 members.
E. ELA members must be local subscribers and cannot be arbitrary e-mail addresses.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 An installer is manually configuring an Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS). When setting up
the network addressing, the installer must enter a host name for the MSS.
What would be a valid MSS host name in an implementation that uses the Aria TUI?
A. MM52mss-corp
B. MM52mss[corp\]
C. MM52mss_corp
D. MM52mss@corp
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 A technician is installing a service pack on a system that uses an Avaya Message Storage Server
(MSS) in a private Windows domain.
To ensure that the updates for the MSS are successfully Installed, on the Messaging Application
Server (MAS), which account should the installer log in as?
A. Corporate Domain User
B. Exchange Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.8 An installer is implementing a Modular Messaging Single Server configuration.
Which kind of file can the installer use to pre-populate data such as networking information in the
pre-installation web pages?
A. DCT
B. EPW
C. MSI
D. OVF
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would
like to restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to
restoring their data in this manner?
A. Stop the voice system processing.
B. Install the latest service pack and patches.
C. Administer the TCP/IP settings
D. Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).
Answer: A

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NO.10 A system can be set up to run on either S8730, S8800, or HP DL360 G7 hardware that is
configured to just SIP integration.
Which two statements are true about the number of voice channels that an individual Messaging
Application Server (MAS) can support? (Choose two.)
A. In a Single Server configuration, the MAS can support a maximum of 48 voice channels.
B. An individual MAS server can support up 120 voice channels.
C. An individual MAS server can support up to 96 voice channels.
D. An individual MAS server can allow as many possible connections as the bandwidth to the
allows
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 3306
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Recording and Avaya Quality Monitoring Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
Guaranteed success with practice guides, No help, Full refund!
65 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-20

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NO.1 A technician is configuring the Avaya Contact Recording to work in a CS1000 environment with
AST recording.
Which entry must be added in the Avaya Contact Recording properties file for this configuration to
work correctly?
A. cc.v6=false
B. aacc.v6=false
C. cc.v6=true
D. aacc.v6=true
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer has installed two Network Interface Cards (NICs) on an Avaya Contact Recording
server, and they are unable to capture Real-time Transport protocol (RTP) packets.
What are three possible reasons they are encountering this problem? (Choose three)
A. The wrong NIC has been selected to use for RTP .
B. Both NICs belong to the same subnet, and are on a different subnet than CLAN/H323, and AES
IP address defined.
C. There is no network path between both NICs and the recorded IP phones.
D. There is no network path between the Avaya Aura® Communication Manager Media resources
and the NIC on the Avaya Contact Recording server to use for RTP .
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 What are two types of reports which can be generated using Enterprise Reporting? (Choose
two)
A. Calibration Reports
B. Call by Call Reports
C. Real Time Reports
D. Graphical Reports
E. Trending Reports
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 You are planning to install an Avaya Contact Recorder on customer site that is using an Avaya
Communication Manager as a PBX.
Which two devices should reachable by the Contact Recorder? (Choose two)
A. Avaya Session Manager
B. Avaya Application Enablement Server
C. Avaya IP Telephones
D. Avaya Communication Manager Gateway
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 When an Avaya Contact Recording server is installed with more than one Network Interface
Card
(NIC), what should be set to indicate which NIC to use for Audio and screen content streams?
A. General Setup > Recorder > Replay Server(s)
B. General Setup > Recorder > Key Management Server
C. General Setup > Recorder > IP address on this server to use for recordings
D. General Setup > Recorder URL(s) of external port(s) to connect to
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your customer is asking questions about the reliability of their new Avaya Contact Recording
system. They have only one physical recorder.
As far as reliability is concerned, which two options would be available for your customer?
(Choose two)
A. The operating system and call database should be RAID 1 and the recording storage area
should be RAID 5
B. Use a fault tolerant Storage Area Network (SAN)
C. Record calls directly to a network attached storage (NAS)
D. Record calls directly to a tape drive
E. Use any backup software to back up the system daily
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 The license Avaya Contact Recording a three digit code is needed. What is this code called,
and
where can it be found?
A. Avaya CR License Code; Recorder Status > Ports
B. License Generation key; System > License
C. Avaya CR License Code; System > License
D. License Generation key; generation Setup > Recorder
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three directories should be excluded from anti-virus software running on the Avaya
Quality
Monitoring Server? (Choose three)
A. PostgresSQL directory
B. QM directory
C. Tomcat directory
D. SQL Server Files and directories
E. Program Files directory
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.9 For an Avaya Quality Monitoring Server, which three items should be backed up? (Choose
three)
A. eCorder directory
B. Avaya Quality Monitoring Database
C. Avaya Quality Monitoring Windows Register key
D. postgressql directory
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 In the enterprise Reporting Webpage, which two troubleshooting tests are available under ETL
tasks?
A. Test Quality Monitoring Connection and Test Apache Tomcat Connection
B. Test Extract and Test Quality Monitoring Connection
C. Test Extract and Test Reporter Gateway
D. Test File Locations and Test Database Connection
Answer: D

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Exam Code: RDCR08301
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level Two)
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130 Questions and Answers
Updated: 2014-04-20

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NO.1 You must create a new Crystal report that displays the top 25% of customer sales leaders. Which
method will sort the report alphabetically by customer, not by the sales summary?
A.Use a standard Top N report.
B.Use subreports with shared variables to calculate the percentage summaries then sort the results.
C.Use multiple arrays in a single report to summarize and sort the data.
D.Use a dynamic array with subreports to create the Top N summaries then sort the data correctly.
Answer:D

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NO.2 How can you reduce processing time for a Crystal report?
A.Sort records on the client
B.Perform query asynchronously
C.Perform grouping on the server
D.Verify data on first refresh
Answer:C

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NO.3 You need to hyperlink to a customer's company name. Which syntax should you use to create the
hyperlink?
A.//"http://"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
B."http://www"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
C.//"http://www"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
D."http://www"+currentfieldvalue+"com"
Answer:B

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NO.4 You create a Crystal report that shows customer names and locations. You use a linked subreport to
display details of the orders placed so far this year by each customer. Each customer's total purchases for
last year are calculated and stored in the main report and retrieved by the subreport. The subreport must
calculate the percentage increase or decrease in orders received this year as compared to each
customer's purchases made last year. Which formula should you use to accomplish this?
A.Shared currencyVar cLYS; (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/cLYS;
B.Shared currencyVar cLYS (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/ Sum ({Orders.Order Amount});
C.Global currencyVar cLYS (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/cLYS;
D.currencyVar cLYS; (cLYS - Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}))/ Sum ({Orders.Order Amount});
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which three conditions might cause an error when you save a custom function? (Choose three.)
A.You used a local variable.
B.You used a summary field.
C.You used a User Function Library (UFL).
D.You used a Print State function.
Answer:B C D

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NO.6 Your test report contains the following record selection formula: {Customer.Region} = "CA" OR
DateTimeToDate ({Orders.Order Date}) > Date (2004,01,01) What is displayed when you select "Show
SQL Query? from the Database menu?
A.An SQL statement or WHERE clause
B.No SQL statement or WHERE clause
C.A server error message
D.A record selection error message
Answer:B

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NO.7 Which menu will allow you to import a new XML transform?
A.Report Export Options
B.Manage XML Exporting Formats
C.Manage XML Importing Formats
D.Report Import Options
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which two methods can you use to save an unlinked subreport as a stand alone report? (Choose two.)
A.In the Preview pane, right-click the subreport and select Save Subreport As
B.In the Design tab, right-click the subreport and select Save Subreport As
C.In the Subreport Preview tab, from the File menu, select Save Report As
D.In the main report, from the File menu, select Save Report As
Answer:A B

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NO.9 What must you do when unmapped report fields appear in the Map Fields dialog box?
A.Map the fields required for the report.
B.Map all required fields to subreport links.
C.Run the Dependency Checker.
D.Map fields to global variables.
Answer:A

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NO.10 You use two different ODBC DSNs that assign different data types (numeric in one data source and
string in the second data source). Which three solutions can you use to link the different data types?
(Choose three.)
A.Use an OLAP cube.
B.Use a command object.
C.Use a linked subreport.
D.Use a stored procedure.
Answer:B C D

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NO.11 Which two evaluation time functions can you use in a formula which contains a manual running total?
(Choose two.)
A.BeforeReadingRecords
B.EvaluateAfter
C.WhileReadingRecords
D.WhilePrintingRecords
Answer:B D

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NO.12 Which two statements are true when you create a shared variable in a main report and pass the
variable to an On-Demand subreport? (Choose two.)
A.The main report passes the variable as a local variable.
B.The shared variable is not available for use in the subreport.
C.The shared variable is available for use in the subreport.
D.The main report must calculate the shared variable before it is available in the subreport.
E.The shared variable is calculated in the subreport.
Answer:C D

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NO.13 What is an acceptable file type for the imported XML transform?
A.XML
B.XSL
C.VTD
D.STX
Answer:B

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NO.14 You add a custom function from the repository to a new Crystal report and want to categorize the
function. What must you do to enable the Category box?
A.Edit the custom function.
B.Disconnect the function from the repository.
C.Re-add the function to the repository.
D.Save the custom function to the report.
Answer:B

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NO.15 You run a report and the report returns an error that fields are missing. Which feature can you use to
determine if the database structure has changed?
A.Verify Database
B.Record Selection Formula
C.Check Dependencies
D.Show SQL Query
Answer:A

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NO.16 How can you verify that the data displayed on a report from a database is correct by using the Show
SQL Query option?
A.Copy and run the query into the native database client utility.
B.Copy the query into the Crystal SQL command.
C.Copy and run the query into the Database Expert.
D.Copy the query into SQL+.
Answer:A

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NO.17 Which is the earliest evaluation time function you can use in a formula which does not use any
database fields or summaries?
A.WhilePrintingRecords
B.BeforeReadingRecords
C.EvaluateAfter
D.WhileReadingRecords
Answer:B

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NO.18 You want to ensure that your Accounts Receivable listing report displays only those customers with
invoices. Which join type must you specify when you link the Customer and Invoice tables using the
Customer ID field?
A.Enforced Both Join
B.Equal Join
C.Inner Join
D.Full Inner Join
Answer:C

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NO.19 You want to calculate summaries on a different dataset than the main report. The summaries must be
calculated before the main report data is returned. These summaries must display once in the main report.
Which task should you perform to create the report?
A.Insert an unlinked subreport in the report header.
B.Insert an unlinked subreport in the group header.
C.Insert a linked subreport in the group header.
D.Insert a linked subreport in the report footer.
Answer:A

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NO.20 Sales Managers use a weekly sales report that includes the following columns: Sales Person, Weekly
Sales and Quota. The Sales Managers would like the ability to retrieve additional non-sales related
information on their personnel by clicking on a hyperlink. Which type of report should you create?
A.Unlinked subreport based on manager ID
B.Unlinked subreport based on employee ID
C.Linked On-Demand subreport based on employee ID
D.On-Demand subreport based on manager ID
Answer:C

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NO.21 Which action should you perform to update a report to reflect a change to the database structure?
A.From the Database Menu, select Set Datasource Location.
B.From the Database Menu, select Verify Database.
C.From the Report Menu, select Refresh Report Data.
D.From the Report Menu, select Check Dependencies.
Answer:B

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NO.22 You create a Crystal report containing basic employee contact information including an employee
photo in a primary report. Occasionally your manager must view information on an employee's
educational background, employment history or training. You decide to use On-Demand subreports to
supply the additional data. Which action retrieves the data from the database?
A.Saving the report with data
B.Selecting the subreport design tab
C.Clicking the subreport hyperlink
D.Opening the main report the first time
Answer:C

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NO.23 In which pass do shared variables get processed?
A.Pre-pass 2
B.Pass 1
C.Pass 3
D.Pass 2
E.Pre-pass 3
Answer:D

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NO.24 You create the following formula in a new Crystal report: Local NumberVar Array b; Redim b[10]; Local
NumberVar i; For i := 1 To 10 Do ( b[i] := 7 * i ); What is the correct value of b[2]?
A.14
B.140
C.70
D.7
Answer:A

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NO.25 The sales manager would like a sales report of last year's sales summarized first by country and then by
last year's sales summarized by sales person. Which method should you use to create the report?
A.Create a report grouped by country and add a subreport in the Report Footer grouped by sales person.
B.Create a report grouped by sales person and add a subreport in Group Header grouped by country.
C.Create a report grouped by sales person and add a subreport in the Report Footer grouped by country.
D.Create a report grouped by country and add a subreport in the Report Header grouped by sales person.
Answer:A

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NO.26 You design a Crystal report for the Sales department. It lists customer orders received year-to-date
and is grouped and subtotaled monthly by order date. It contains the selection formula: Sum
({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "monthly") > $200000. What is the highest stage of
processing that this report requires?
A.Pass 2
B.Pre-pass 3
C.Pass 1
D.Pre-pass 2
E.Pass 3
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NO.27 The world sales report is being sent to all regional managers. Three of the managers cover multiple
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the following is true?
A.The Dynamic Recipient Data Provider should be sorted by recipient ID.
B.The Dynamic Recipient Data Provider should be sorted by region ID.
C.It is not possible to include more than one region per manager in the report.
D.No action is required as the Dynamic Recipient Data Provider will automatically sort as necessary.
Answer:A

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NO.28 Scheduling a report and sending sub-sets of data to different users dependent on the security is called:
A.Report bursting
B.Report exporting
C.Report publishing
D.Report scheduling
Answer:A

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NO.29 You want to design a weekly sales report that contains a list of all products sold during the week in the
Report Header. Which type of array would you use to handle the data?
A.Dynamic
B.Standard
C.Adaptive
D.Passive
Answer:A

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NO.30 Which three statements describe characteristics of a subreport? (Choose three.)
A.Can be inserted in any section of a primary report
B.Can contain subreports
C.Can have its own record selection
D.Does not contain a Page Header or Page Footer section
Answer:A C D

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NO.1 You have a regional sales report with State, City and Sales Revenue dimensions. You want to
create a variable that excludes State from the output context. Which output statement should you
use?
A. In([State])
B. Out([State])
C. ForAll([State])
D. ForEach([State])
Answer: C

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NO.2 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with data and want to use data tracking. The
Data Tracking button is however grayed out. Which action should you take to enable formatting of
the tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Enable data tracking in the Document Properties.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A variable in your report contains the statement:
=If[State] = "California" Then [Sales revenue] * 1.05 Else If[State] = "Colorado" Then [Sales
revenue] *
1.1 Else If[State] InList ("DC";"Texas ") Then [Sales revenue] * 1.15 Else If[State] =
"Massachusetts"
Then [Sales revenue] * 1.18 Else [Sales revenue]
Sales revenue for Florida is $1,879,159. Which rate is applied to the Florida revenue by the
formula?
A. 1.00
B. 1.05
C. 1.10
D. 1.15
E. 1.18
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which operator should you use to control the output context of a calculation that is relevant
to the different environment levels within your document?
A. In
B. Out
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true of an output context operator?
A. It is placed within the brackets of the dimension list.
B. It is placed outside of the brackets of the dimension list.
C. It is placed within the brackets of the aggregation function.
D. It is placed outside of the brackets of the aggregation function.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which three methods can you use to combine queries using the Web Intelligence Rich Client?
(Choose three.)
A. UNION
B. MINUS
C. UNION ALL
D. INTERSECT
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 You want to force the calculation context for a variable in a large report with many
dimensions. Which operator allows you to add a dimension to the default context?
A. In
B. All
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Answer: D

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NO.8 You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with tracked data changes.
You wish to change the color of the tracked data. You however cannot change the format of the
tracked data. What should you do to enable formatting of the tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Resave the document with data tracking formats enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.9 How much impact does data tracking have on the data size of a Web Intelligence document
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A. It will stay the same size.
B. It will increase two times.
C. It will increase three times.
D. It will increase by 50% on each refresh.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where are contexts created?
A. In a report
B. In a universe
C. In a derived table
D. At the database level
Answer: B

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NO.1 RSA SecurID tokens are initially supplied with matching token records. After tokens are assigned,
deployed and used by end-users, what information might be overwritten if the original token records are
re-imported into the RSA Authentication Manager database.? (Choose two)
A. user assignment
B. tokencode values
C. Authentication Agent usage
D. token time offset information
E. system PIN parameter settings
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 How many RSA Authentication Manager servers can be in a single Instance (maximum) under an
Enterprise license?
A. 1 database server and a single Server Node
B. 1 Primary server and up to 3 Replica servers
C. 1 database server and up to 4 Server Nodes
D. 1 Primary server and up to 15 Replica servers
Answer: C

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NO.3 When creating and running RSA Authentication Manager version 7.1 reports, the administrator has the
option of (Choose two)
A. allowing the report to run with the scope of the administrator who is running the report.
B. defining report criteria by writing an SQL query to extract data directly from the database.
C. customizing a report template by adding and removing columns and applying data filters.
D. creating and running reports from a Replica database server if the Primary server is down.
E. previewing the report output before the report is run to make sure the desired data is included.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 If the RSA Authentication Manager places a token into Next Tokencode Mode, and the user waits for
three minutes (three tokencode increments) to enter his/her next tokencode, what will be the expected
result?
A. The Server will not accept the value because it is not sequential.
B. The authentication will be successful even though the input was delayed.
C. The Server will ask for a third tokencode, so that it has two sequential codes.
D. The Server will assume that the token has been stolen, and disable the token.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A user reports a problem while trying to authenticate. The administrator checks recent activities and
sees that the last message associated with this user is "New Pin Cancelled." What is the most likely
cause?
A. The user is not in New PIN mode.
B. The user is not in the server database.
C. The user did not complete the New PIN operation successfully.
D. The user is not authorized to authenticate through this Authentication Agent.
Answer: C

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NO.6 The RSA Authentication Manager has settings where (by default) three incorrect PASSCODES will
invoke Next Tokencode Mode. Where is this configuration setting located?
A. Within the Setup menu.
B. Within the Identity menu.
C. Within the Polices menu.
D. Within the RADIUS menu.
Answer: C

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NO.7 If a group has been defined with access times of 9 AM to 5 PM, Monday through Friday. When can a
member of that group log in?
A. at any time but must renew their login at 9 AM each day
B. during the specified time frame, but must log out by 5 PM
C. during that time frame and can remain logged in indefinitely
D. during that time frame but is automatically logged out at 5 PM
Answer: C

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NO.8 RSA Authentication audit log records
A. can be archived using a scheduled job.
B. are only accessible by the Super Admin administrator.
C. are always deleted from the database when they are archived.
D. can be digitally signed by the administrator for archival storage protection.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A user is trying to authenticate from their workstation to the RSA Authentication Manager but receives
an "Access Denied" message. The Server's log is showing the following error message: "Node secret
mismatch". What is a likely cause?
A. The sdconf.rec is missing from the Agent machine.
B. The user is not allowed to authenticate on that Agent.
C. The Agent has not been added into the Server database.
D. The secret key used to encrypt Agent communication has been deleted.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Authenticators should NOT be shared by multiple users because of
A. license concerns.
B. hostname conflicts.
C. database restrictions.
D. repudiation concerns.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Three consecutive log entries for one user contain the message "Authentication Method Failed", what
administrative action would NOT be appropriate?
A. resynchronize the token
B. set the user's PIN to Next Tokencode
C. assign a temporary Fixed Passcode for troubleshooting
D. check the system time of the RSA Authentication Manager host
Answer: B

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NO.12 When assigning a user a Temporary Fixed Tokencode to replace a lost token, what is the default value
for the expiration period of that Tokencode?
A. 24 hours
B. 5 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C

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NO.13 An RSA Authentication Manager administrator would edit an Identity Attribute parameter
A. to ignore users with duplicate user names.
B. to store additional user information in a user record.
C. to specify an LDAP Bind DN and Bind DN password.
D. when the LDAP server is not in the same domain as the RSA Authentication Manager server.
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are assisting a user who is working offline on a Microsoft Windows Authentication Agent. If you
provide this user with an Offline Emergency Passcode, you must tell the user
A. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID token passcode without using a PIN.
B. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but continue to use the existing PIN.
C. to use the code in place of the RSA SecurID tokencode but you will also issue a temporary
replacement PIN.
D. to first enter their Windows password and, when prompted for the Emergency Access Code, enter the
code that you provide.
Answer: A

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NO.15 An RSA SecurID tokencode is unique for each successful authentication because
A. a token periodically calculates a new code
B. the user continuously changes their secret PIN
C. the Node Secret is updated after each authentication
D. the Server's clock is set to Universal Coordinated Time (UTC)
Answer: A

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NO.16 If a Super Admin administrator can view a certain set of user records in the Authentication Manager
database but a Help Desk administrator can not,
A. the Help Desk administrator should be assigned a Super Admin role.
B. the Super Admin administrator's privileges should be set to 'delegatable'.
C. the Help Desk administrator scope may not allow viewing of these users.
D. this would be considered a normal difference between these two types of administrators.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Operation between Windows, Linux and UNIX platforms is supported by RSA Authentication Manager
for which types of communications? (Choose two)
A. Agent to Server
B. Database Replication
C. Primary to Replica Server
D. Trusted Realm authentication
E. Database server to Server Node
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 If multiple users request On-demand Tokencodes but are not receiving them, you would want to
confirm that
A. the users are not in New PIN mode.
B. SMS or SMTP services are configured correctly.
C. the tokens assigned to the users have not expired.
D. the tokens assigned to the users have been resynchronized.
Answer: B

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NO.19 An RSA Authentication Manager is licensed for 500 users. The license must be upgraded if you want
to
A. assign more than 500 tokens to individual users.
B. import more than 500 token records into the database.
C. import more than 500 users from an LDAP directory source.
D. allow cross-realm authentication for more than 500 remote users.
Answer: A

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NO.20 A feature of the RADIUS protocol is
A. the ability to track a user's login and logout time (RADIUS accounting).
B. the computer time setting can be checked remotely (remote time service).
C. a user's default login name becomes their password (RADIUS login synchronization).
D. the user Profile and Attribute Value Pair matches their tokencode (RADIUS token matching).
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics
including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality?
A. Agreement
B. COBIT
C. Service Improvement Plan
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management?
A. Service Portfolio Update
B. Business Planning Data
C. Strategic Planning
D. Strategic Service Assessment
E. Service Strategy Definition
Answer: B

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NO.3 Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly.
Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and
creates measurement techniques to grade the process?
A. Research
B. Adapt
C. Plan
D. Improve
Answer: C

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A. Delphi technique
B. Isolated pilot groups
C. SWOT analysis
D. Root cause analysis
Answer: A

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NO.5 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess
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A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve.
B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need.
C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve.
D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze
its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis?
A. Bandwidth
B. Pricing
C. Product
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team
member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the
project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk
response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is
bestowed on Thomas?
A. Risk coordinator
B. Risk expeditor
C. Risk owner
D. Risk team leader
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better
decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as
cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts?
A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization
B. Portfolio Management
C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards
D. Portfolio What-If Planning
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project
team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management
approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time
of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the
installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in
this scenario?
A. Avoidance
B. Mitigation
C. Parkinson's Law
D. Lag Time
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S.
Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing
Working Group?
A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring
B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing
C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring
D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on
Answer: D

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NO.11 DRAG DROP
Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by
the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio
management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes
defined by Val IT.
Answer:

NO.12 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In
addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of
production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another
competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to
your competitor?
A. Corporate restructure
B. Divestiture
C. Rightsizing
D. Outsourcing
Answer: B

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NO.13 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing
infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected.
Answer: asset

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NO.14 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis.
As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs.
Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise architecture
C. Business need
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: D

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NO.15 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the
management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses
in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Historical information
D. Rolling wave planning
Answer: B

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NO.16 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several
subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process.
During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously
identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events?
A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to.
B. The events should be entered into the risk register.
C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis.
D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.17 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate word.
________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles
and executive remuneration.
Answer: Conformance

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NO.18 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are
creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement
among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed.
Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact?
A. Risk response plan
B. Look-up table
C. Project sponsor
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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NO.19 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be
apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model
Answer: Sensitivity analysis

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NO.20 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and
this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to
remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is
called what?
A. Corrective action
B. Preventive action
C. Scope creep
D. Defect repair
Answer: B

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NO.21 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and
maintenance activities.
Answer: Life cycle

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NO.22 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business
needs?
A. Voluntary exit
B. Plant closing
C. Involuntary exit
D. Outplacement
Answer: C

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NO.23 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation.
You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will
help you in this?
A. Estimate activity duration
B. Quantitative analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Risk identification
Answer: C

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NO.24 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio?
A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization.
B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations.
C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area.
D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the
market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market?
A. Project gap
B. Competitive gap
C. Usage gap
D. Product gap
Answer: C

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NO.26 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to
model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors.
There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and
project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project
oriented analysis for identified risks?
A. Modeling and simulation
B. Expected monetary value
C. Sensitivity analysis
D. Jo-Hari Window
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations
B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance
C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding
D. Capitalization on knowledge & information
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.28 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis.
Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just
completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative
risk analysis is.?
A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing
and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on
probability and impact of each risk event.
C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest
impact on the project objectives.
D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall
project objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes?
A. Incident Management
B. IT Facilities Management
C. Release Management
D. Request Fulfillment
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below?
"This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project
objectives."
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Answer: C

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NO.1 You are the project manager of the GHY Project. Management wants you to create a process
improvement plan for your project. Your project will be studied by management and will become a
standard for all future organizational projects based on your project's performance, approach, and
implementation of project processes. All of the following should be included in your project's process
improvement plan except for which one?
A. Process boundaries
B. Process configuration
C. Targets for improved performance
D. Identification of project risks
Answer: D

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NO.2 Mark is the project manager of the GHQ Project. He is happily reporting that his project has a schedule
performance index of 2.12. Management, however, does not think this is good news.
What is the most likely reason why management does not like an SPI of 2.12?
A. It is not good news because a larger number means the schedule duration estimates were likely to be
wrong to begin with.
B. They likely do not understand the SPI formula.
C. It is not good news, as the number should be closer to 100 than 0.
D. It is good news, but Mark may have large cost variances to achieve this value.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are the project manager of the NHGQ project for your company. You must create and distribute
performance reports every week to your key project stakeholders. What communication technique do you
normally use to distribute reports?
A. Push technique
B. Many-to-many
C. One-to-one
D. Pull technique
Answer: A

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. When activities are logically linked, they become the
__________
Answer: Schedule.

NO.5 Sam is the project manager of the NQQ project. He and the project team have completed the
stakeholder identification process for his project. What is the main output of the identify stakeholders
process?
A. Communications management plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirements
D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which one of the following estimate types is a form of expert judgment?
A. Parametric estimate
B. Analogous estimate
C. Bottom-up estimate
D. Definitive estimate
Answer: B

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NO.7 Your project has a BAC of $750,000 and is 75 percent complete. According to your plan, however, your
project should actually be 80 percent complete. You have spent $575,000 of your project budget to reach
this point and you are worried about the project not being able to complete based on your current project
budget. What is the to-complete performance index for this project?
A. 0.98
B. -$16,677
C. 1.07
D. 0.94
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following scheduling techniques identifies the successor activities and the
predecessor activities to assist the project manager in sequencing the project work?
A. Precedence Diagramming Method
B. Schedule network template
C. Dependency determination
D. Activity on the Node
Answer: A

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NO.9 Gina is the project manager for her organization and she is working with her project team to define the
project activities. In this project, the stakeholders are sensitive to the project completion date,
so Gina is stressing to her project team members that while they need to provide and account for all of the
project activities, they should focus on one work package in the WBS at a time. In order to start the
decomposition of the project work packages into activities, Gina will need all of the following except for
which one?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. WBS
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are the project manager for your company. You are working with the activities defined in the figure
below.
What will happen to your project if Activity F takes five additional days to complete than what was
expected?
A. Your project's critical path will shift to ACFI.
B. Your project will be late by five days.
C. Your project can still complete on time as float is available onActivity I.
D. Your project will now have two critical paths.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Beth is the project manager for her organization. Her current project has many deliverables that have
been defined at a high level, but the details of the deliverables are still unknown. In her project, Beth is
planning in detail only the activities that are most imminent in the project work. This approach to project
management planning is known as what?
A. Imminent activity management
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Predecessor-only diagramming
D. Decomposition
Answer: B

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NO.12 Andy works as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. He is developing the schedule for the project.
There are eight tools and techniques that a project manager can use to develop the project schedule.
Which of the following is a tool and technique for the Schedule Development process?
A. Schedule compression
B. Reserve analysis
C. Variance analysis
D. Expert judgment
Answer: A

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NO.13 The Define Activities process is the first process in the project time management knowledge are a.
The Define Activities process creates just three outputs as a result of decomposition, rolling wave
planning, templates, and expert judgment. Which one of the following is not an output of the Define
Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Milestone list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project document updates
Answer: D

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NO.14 You are the project manager of the GHT Project. Ben, one of your project team members, does not
understand the idea of a milestone. Which of the following best describes what a milestone is?
A. A significant point in the project
B. A goal of reaching a significant delivery of project benefits by an identified date
C. An imposed date for the project to reach a given point
D. The completion of a project activity that is crucial to project completion
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are the project manager for your organization. You need the oak cabinets for your project
delivered by December 1 in order to install the floors around the oak cabinets by December 15.
Your company's procurement office generally takes 45 days to complete procurement orders. Based on
this information, how should you schedule the lead time for the cabinet delivery?
A. Cabinet procurement December 1, plus 45 days lead time
B. Cabinet procurement November 15
C. Cabinet procurement December 1, minus 45 dayslead time
D. Cabinet procurement December 15 minus 45 dayslead time
Answer: C

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NO.16 Examine the figure given below:
If Activity B takes eight days to complete instead of five days as schedule, how long can you now delay
Activity H?
A. Three days
B. One day
C. Four days
D. Zero days
Answer: B

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NO.17 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
The __________ includes a description of any collateral services required, such as performancereporting
or post-project operational support for the procured item.
Answer: procurement SOW

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NO.18 You are the project manager for your organization. You have recorded the following duration estimates
for an activity in your project: optimistic 20, most likely 45, pessimistic 90. What time will you record for
this activity?
A. 48
B. 20o, 45m, 90p
C. 90
D. 45
Answer: A

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NO.19 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Management has asked you not to communicate
performance unless the CPI is less than 0.96 or the SPI dips below 0.98. What type of report would you
create for management, if these instances develop in your project?
A. Cost variance report
B. Exceptions report
C. Performance management report
D. Schedule variance report
Answer: B

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NO.20 George is the project manager of the NHQ Project and has a budget of $778,000. The project is
scheduled to last for one year with an equal amount of work completed each quarter. The second quarter
of the project has ended and George has spent $325,000 but has only finished forty percent of the project.
Management needs a variance report for the project schedule. What value should George report in this
instance?
A. .96
B. -$77,800
C. $-34,500
D. -$13,800
Answer: B

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NO.21 John works as a project manager of the NHQ Project. He has created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
Based on the project network diagram, how much float is available for Activity H if Activity B is delayed by
four days and Activity E is delayed by two days?
A. Zero
B. One
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: A

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NO.22 Ben is the project manager for his organization. His project has 26 stakeholders this week and will
have five additional stakeholders next week. How many more communication channels will Ben's project
have next week?
A. 140
B. 10
C. 325
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.23 You are the project manager of the NHA Project. This project is expected to last one year with quarterly
milestones throughout the year. Your project is supposed to be at the third milestone today but you're
likely only 60 percent complete. Your project has a BAC of $745,000 and you've spent $440,000 of the
budget-to-date. What is your schedule performance index for this project?
A. 80
B. 1.02
C. 102
D. 0.80
Answer: D

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NO.24 You are the project manager of the HQQ Project. Your project is running late by ten percent of where
you should be at this time. Management is concerned. Considering that the project has a BAC of
$567,899, you are thirty percent complete, and you have spent $179,450. What is this project's
to-complete performance index based on the current BAC?
A. 1.02
B. 0.010
C. 0.75
D. 0.95
Answer: A

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NO.25 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. Management has set a conformance to the project
schedule for your project at 0.95. What does this term mean?
A. It means the largest schedule variance you can have is five percent.
B. It is the earned value divided by the planned value for your project.
C. It is the expectation of management to be 95 on schedule at 95 percent of the project.
D. It means you will need to earn at least 95 cents per dollar invested in the project.
Answer: A

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NO.26 Your project team is executing the project plan and things are going well. Your team has reached
its first milestone and is now in the second phase of the project. The project stakeholders have requested
that you find a method to reduce the duration of the project. They will reward you and your project team
with a 25 percent bonus of the project costs if you can finish the project thirty days earlier than what was
already planned. The stakeholders, however, will not approve any additional labor costs as part of the
agreement. Which approach could you use to shorten the duration of the project?
A. Perform resource leveling for the project.
B. Crash the project schedule.
C. Fast track the project.
D. Remove things from the project scope.
Answer: C

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NO.27 You have created the project network diagram for the ABC project. You are exploring total float and
free float for that project. Martin, a project team member, wants to know the difference between total float
and free float. What is the difference between total float and free float?
A. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
B. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project successors.
C. Total float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project
completiondate, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying any
project predecessors.
D. Total float is the amount of time a non-critical activity can be delayed without delaying any project
successors, whereas free float is the amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the
project completion date.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Once the project's WBS has been created what process may happen next?
A. Estimate activity resources
B. Define activities
C. Estimate activity durations
D. Sequence activities
Answer: B

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NO.29 You are the project manager of the BHG Project. You are creating a network diagram as shown in the
figure:
Mary, a project team member, reports that an identified risk is likely to happen in the project that will affect
the completion date of Activity D . She reports that the risk event will likely cause the duration of the
activity to increase by six days. If this happens what is the earliest the project can complete?
A. 32 days
B. 29 days
C. 27 days
D. 26 days
Answer: D

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NO.30 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project. You have created the project network diagram as
shown in the figure:
You are concerned about a risk on Activity G that if it happens will delay the project by four days.
You would like to utilize float for Activity G. How much float is available for Activity G to help offset the risk
event?
A. Five days
B. Four days
C. Eleven days
D. Zero
Answer: D

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